Air Law (All Questions)

1. Question

Who has the right to revalidate a pilot licence?

Select one:

Civil aviation administration.
A pilot instructor.
Civil aviation department.
A flight test examiner.

2. Question

Whilst maintaining a steady course, level and speed you see another aircraft in your 2 o’clock about 4 nautical miles away and at the same level as yourself. The danger of collision exists if the other aircraft:

Select one:

appears to be overtaking you, by moving towards your 12 o'clock.
appears to be dropping behind you, moving towards your 4 o'clock.
appears to get bigger.
remains in the same relative position.

3. Question

Whilst flying at night you see the green navigation light of another flying machine at a similar level on a steady relative bearing of 310:

Select one:

There is no risk of collision.
There is a risk of collision, you should climb or descend.
There is a risk of collision, you should turn right.
There is a risk of collision, you should maintain heading and speed.

4. Question

While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see at a constant relative bearing of 010 degrees, and at the same altitude, a steady white light with a green light to its left and a red light to its right. The lights appear to be getting closer. You deduce that you see;

Select one:

an airship on a collision course with you, to which you must give way.
a glider on a collision course with you, to which you must give way.
a glider on a collision course with you, and that you have the right of way.
an airship on a collision course with you, and that you have the right of way.

5. Question

Which transponder code should a pilot select if he is experiencing an emergency which threatens the safety of his aircraft and/or its occupants?

Select one:

7000
7500
7700
7600

6. Question

Which statement is correct ?

During a Visual Approach” in Controlled Airspace (Class C):”

Select one:

ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
the pilot to apply separation with other traffic
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic

7. Question

Which year Lithuania became ICAO member?

Select one:

1991
1994
1992
1993

8. Question

Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft?

Select one:

The State of Manufacture.
The State of Registration.
The State of Design.
The state of the Operator.

9. Question

Which SSR code should be selected to indicate radio failure:

Select one:

7700
7500
2000
7600

10. Question

Which scenario from the answers below, is likely to create the largest amount of wake turbulence:

Select one:

Small aeroplane, flying slowly, flaps retracted in light winds.
Small aeroplane, flying fast, flaps retracted.
Large aeroplane, flying slowly, flaps retracted in light winds.
Large aeroplane, flying fast, flaps retracted.

11. Question

Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?

Select one:

The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory, given due cause.
The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.
The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons being pursued in law.
The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.

12. Question

Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?

Select one:

The AIP does not contain this information
GEN
AD
ENR

13. Question

Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

Select one:

GEN
AD
METEO
ENR

14. Question

Which one of the following statements is true? Prior to taxiing for take off aircraft will be passed the following information:

Select one:

runway in use; surface wind speed and direction; QFE or, on request, QNH; current visibility if less than 10 km; correct time.
runway in use; forecast wind speed and direction; QNH or, on request, QFE; current visibility if less than 10 km; correct time.
runway in use; surface wind speed and direction; QNH or, on request, QFE; current visibility if less than 10 km; correct time.
runway in use; surface wind speed and direction; QNH or, on request, QFE; current visibility if less than 5 km; correct time.

15. Question

Which one of the following statements is false? An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying and until everyone has left it;

Select one:

the aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.
a passenger dies from natural causes.
the aircraft incurs damage or structural failure.
anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft.

16. Question

Which one of the following statements is false? A full flight plan, or an abbreviated flight plan passed over the radio, is required when:

Select one:

the flight will take place exclusively in the Open FIR but the pilot intends to request a Flight Information Service.
the pilot is intending to fly in class A, B, C and D airspace.
the pilot is flying within controlled airspace in IMC or at night, except when flying SVFR.
the flight will cross an international FIR boundary.

17. Question

Which of the symptoms below may indicate Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

1. Headache.

2. Weakness.

3. Nausea.

4. Dizziness.

5. Euphoria.

6. Enhanced hearing.

7. Improved vision.

Select one:

3, 4, 5 and 6.
1, 2, 3 and 4.
1, 2, 6 and 7.
All of them.

18. Question

Which of the listed below flight levels (FL) is used for visual flights?

Select one:

FL255
FL200
FL50
FL45

19. Question

Which of the following would be classed as an aircraft accident?

Select one:

A main tyre bursting on landing.
A bird strike which slightly dents the leading edge of a wing.
An aerial becomes detached.
A person on the ground is seriously injured after being hit by a component that has become detached from a light aircraft in flight.

20. Question

Which of the following would be classed as an aircraft accident?

Select one:

An engine failure in the circuit. Damage is confined to the engine and the aircraft makes a successful forced landing on the runway.
An aircraft under tow damages another parked aircraft.
A person is serious injured on the apron by the wingtip of a taxiing aircraft.
During landing the propeller tips are slightly damaged.

21. Question

Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one:

An applicant for a PPL must have completed a minimum of 25 hrs of dual instruction, and at [east 12 hrs of supervised solo flying. This must include at least 5 hrs of solo cross-country flying. The cross-country flying must contain at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 nms (270 km), during which a full stop landing at 2 aerodromes (different from the aerodrome of departure) must be made.
An applicant for a PPL must have completed a minimum of 25 hrs of dual instruction, and at least 10 hrs of supervised solo flying. This must include at least 5 hrs of solo cross-country flying. The cross-country flying must contain at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 nms (270 km), during which a full stop landing at 2 aerodromes (different from the aerodrome of departure) must be made.
An applicant for a PPL must have completed a minimum of 35 hrs of dual instruction, and at feast 10 hrs of supervised solo flying. This must include at least 5 hrs of solo cross-country flying. The cross-country flying must contain at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 nms (270 km), during which a full stop landing at 2 aerodromes (different from the aerodrome of departure) must be made.
An applicant for a PPL must have completed a minimum of 25 hrs of dual instruction, and at least 10 hrs of supervised solo flying. This must include at least 6 hrs of solo cross-country flying. The cross-country flying must contain at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 nms (270 km), during which a full stop landing at 2 aerodromes (different from the aerodrome of departure) must be made.

22. Question

Which of the following statements is correct regarding operations on a contaminated runway?

Select one:

Whenever a departure from a contaminated runway is unavoidable, use the full length of the runway available, the lowest take-off flap setting possible and maximum take-off power.
Operations from contaminated runways require little risk assessment by the Pilot-in-Command.
Operations by all aircraft classes and types should be avoided whenever possible.
Whenever a departure from a contaminated runway is unavoidable, adopt the short field take-off technique.

23. Question

Which of the following statements applies to the carriage of passengers by the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL(A) licence?

Select one:

You must have made 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days.
You must receive special clearance to carry passengers.
You cannot carry passengers with a JAA PPL(A).
Any money you receive must be given to charity.

24. Question

Which of the following registration marks must NOT be used because it is easy to confuse with radiotelephony code?

Select one:

XXX
XXX and TTT
ZZZ
TTT

25. Question

Which of the following rectifications may a licensed pilot not carry out on his aircraft which has a private category C of A?

Select one:

Replacement of the propeller.
Replacement of generator and fan belts designed for removal where special tools are not required.
Replacement of main rotor blades that are designed for removal where special tools are not required.
Replacement of wings and tail surfaces and controls, the attachments of which are designed to provide for assembly immediately before each flight and dismantling after each flight.

26. Question

Which of the following rectifications may a licensed pilot not carry out on his aircraft which has a private category C of A?

Select one:

Replacement of an aileron.
Replacement of safety belts or safety harness.
Replacement of seats or seat parts not involving dismantling of any structure or of any operating system.
Replacement of any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller, rotors or disconnection of engine or flight controls.

27. Question

Which of the following normally defines ‘runway in use’ on an uncontrolled airfield?

Select one:

The defined take off and landing portion of an aerodrome.
The most convenient runway to use for the aircraft operating from the aerodrome.
A runway into wind.
A part of the manoeuvring area defined for take off and landing.

28. Question

Which of the following meteorological phenomena may lead to windshear?

Select one:

Thunderstorms, temperature inversions, fog, virga.
Occluded fronts, rain, microbursts and virga.
Thunderstorms, frontal passage, marked temperature inversions, virga, microbursts and strong winds.
Only thunderstorms.

29. Question

Which of the following is true in relation to the wake turbulence generated by helicopter?

Select one:

Helicopters only produce wake turbulence during forward flight.
Compared to fixed wing aircraft of a similar weight helicopters produce more intense wake turbulence.
Compared to fixed wing aircraft of a similar weight helicopters produce less intense wake turbulence.
Helicopters only produce wake turbulence during hover taxi.

30. Question

Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

Select one:

ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

31. Question

Which of the following is not an SAR ground to air signal?

Select one:

N
R
Y
V

32. Question

Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

Select one:

Distress phase.
Urgency phase.
Alert phase.
Uncertainty phase.

33. Question

Which of the following is method to re-validate a single engine piston class rating?

Select one:

Complete a 2 hour training flight with a flying instructor in 6 months preceding the expiry of the rating.
Pass a proficiency check flight with a flight examiner within 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating.
Complete 12 hours of flight time including 6 hours PIC and 12 take-offs and landings, and complete a 1 hour training flight with an instructor within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating.
Complete 12 hours of flight time including 6 take-offs and landings, and complete a 2 hour training flight with an instructor within the 6 months preceding the expiry of the rating.

34. Question

Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft require a noise certificate and which are exempt?

Select one:

All aeroplanes except certain STOL aircraft require a noise certificate.
All aircraft which can take off from a hard dry runway in less than 610 metres are exempt.
Training aircraft are exempt.
Non-public transport aircraft are exempt.

35. Question

Which of the following groups correctly identifies items not normally subject to customs and excise duty when the aircraft of one ICAO contracting state lands in another contracting state?

Select one:

Fuel, lubricants, oils, spare parts (technical consumables) and standard equipment remaining on board the aircraft.
Fuel, lubricants and oils, only.
Tobaccos, wines and spirits.
Fuel, lubricants and oils, only, which are remaining on board the aircraft.

36. Question

Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?

Select one:

FL 70
FL50
FL 75
FL 85

37. Question

Which of the following does a pilot require in addition to his licence in order to fly an aeroplane?

Select one:

An MCC certificate.
A Medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR-FCL 3 or Part-FCL.
A valid type rating only.
A radiotelephony licence.

38. Question

Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?

Select one:

Flight crew licences.
Certificate of Airworthiness.
Flight crew birth certificates.
Certificate of Registration.

39. Question

Which of the following conditions must be met for the revalidation of a PPL single-engine piston rating according to Part FCL.740.A?

Select one:

Within the 3 months preceding the expiry of the rating, the pilot shall complete 3 hours flying time to include one hour as pilot in command, and 6 take offs and landings, and fly a training sortie of at least one hour's duration with a qualified flying instructor.
Within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, the pilot shall complete 12 hours flying time to include 6 hours as pilot in command, and 12 take offs and landings, and fly a training sortie of at least one hour's duration with a qualified flying instructor.
Within the 6 months preceding the expiry of the rating, the pilot shall complete 6 hours flying time to include 3 hours as pilot in command, and 6 take offs and landings, and fly a training sortie of at least one hour's duration with a qualified flying instructor.
Within the 24 months preceding the expiry of the rating, the pilot shall complete 12 hours flying time to include 6 hours as pilot in command, and 12 take offs and landings, and fly a training sortie of at least one hour's duration with a qualified flying instructor.

40. Question

Which of the following circumstances does not constitute an exception to the low flying prohibitions?

Select one:

Landing and taking off.
SVFR clearances and notified routes.
Written permission from the CAA.
A practice forced landing away from an airfield under instruction from a qualified flying instructor.

41. Question

Which of the following Certificate of Airworthiness categories is not a designated category?

Select one:

Transport Category (Passenger).
Transport Category (Cargo).
Aerial Work Category.
Training Category.

42. Question

Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?

Select one:

A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take off or landing roll.
The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had detached from the aircraft while it was airborne, but where the safety of the aircraft was not necessarily compromised.
An engine failure in flight.
A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight.

43. Question

Which of the following are the 3 parts of the Air Traffic Control Service?

Select one:

Aerodrome Control; Approach Control; Area Control.
Flight Information Service; Alerting Service; Aerodrome Services.
ATC; Flight Information Service; Alerting Service.
ATC; Approach Control; Aerodrome Control.

44. Question

Which of the following activities is forbidden to the holder of a PPL?

Select one:

Carriage of passengers.
Parachute dropping.
Glider towing.
Aerial Work.

45. Question

Which of the actions listed below should be carried out after an evacuation on land?

1. Direct passengers upwind of the aircraft.

2. Go to the nearest public house.

3. Administer first aid as required.

4. Conduct a head count.

5. Contact the emergency services.

6. Activate Personal Locator Beacons if in a remote location.

7. Drain all fuel, to reduce the risk of fire.

8. Attempt an engine restart and if successful, fly the aircraft out of the landing site back to base.

Select one:

2 and 5.
All of them.
All except 2,7 and 8.
1,2 and 7.

46. Question

Which of provides the correct conclusion to the following statement? If a PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, he must:

Select one:

carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.
remain clear of the CTR.
carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land.
carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point, complying with the last clearance received.

47. Question

Which of following pressures should be set on altimeter of aircraft performing a cross country flight bellow transition level (TL)?

Select one:

QNH
QTE
QFE
QNE

48. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement? In order to minimise the risk of collision the following rules apply when aircraft of different categories are converging:

Select one:

aeroplanes give way to helicopters and tug-aircraft with a glider on tow.
aeroplanes and helicopters must give way to tug-aircraft with a glider on tow.
gliders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships.
aeroplanes must give way to helicopters and airships.

49. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) provides the correct conclusion to the following statement? A radio communication service provided by a minor airfield with no Air Traffic Control or Aerodrome Flight Information Service would have the callsign;

Select one:

information.
base.
radio.
ground.

50. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement? In order to minimise the risk of collision the following rules apply when aircraft of different categories are converging:

Select one:

airships must give way to powered aeroplanes, gliders and balloons.
powered aeroplanes must give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
liders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships.
tug-aircraft with a glider on tow must give way to all other airspace users.

51. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircrafts are on final approach:

Select one:

the lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.
the higher aircraft has the right of way.
the lower aircraft has the right of way.
the aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way.

52. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following statement? That part of a paved taxiway that ICAO regulations stipulate should be marked is:

Select one:

the centre-line, which should be painted in yellow.
the borders, which should be painted in white.
the centre-line, which should be painted in white.
the borders, which should be painted in yellow.

53. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following statement? In the Lithuania, vehicle towing an aircraft on an aerodrome manoeuvring area must give way to:

Select one:

motor vehicles.
an aircraft taxiing on an aerodrome maneuvering area
pedestrians.
fuel bowsers only.

54. Question

What is the meaning of a flashing green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

Select one:

You have priority to land.
Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.
Land immediately.
Clear to land.

55. Question

What is the meaning of ‘State of Registry’ as far as an aircraft is concerned?

Select one:

The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness.
The state which issued the licence and type rating to pilots entitled to fly the aircraft.
The state in which an aircraft is currently registered and where that aircraft's details, including details of its ownership, are entered on the state's register.
The state in which is situated the company which constructed the aircraft and which compiled the operating manual.

56. Question

What is the Maximum Take-Off Mass of a medium category aircraft in terms of its Wake Turbulence Category?

Select one:

Between 136 000 kg and 7 000 kg inclusive.
Below 136 000 kg and above 7 000 kg.
Below 136 000 kg and above 8 000 kg.
Below 130 000 kg and above 7 000 kg.

57. Question

What is the maximum height (FL) of uncontrolled airspace (G) in Lithuania?

Select one:

FL95
5000 ft
1500 m
1500 ft

58. Question

What is the main cause of an engine fire upon start?

Select one:

Over priming.
Setting the throttle/power too far open.
Not setting the mixture control at the rich setting.
A crack in the exhaust pipe.

59. Question

What is the meaning of a flashing green light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?

Select one:

Clear to move or taxi on the manoeuvring area.
Clear to take off.
Return to the apron.
Move clear of the landing area.

60. Question

Which of listed below is a Lithuanian Aircraft nationality mark?

Select one:

LV
LY
LTU
LT

61. Question

What is the ICAO definition of Aerial Work?

Select one:

Any aircraft operation in which the pilot-in-command is required to hold a Commercial Pilot's Licence.
Any aircraft operation in which an aircraft is being from a commercial venture.
An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, private hire and scheduled travel, etc.

62. Question

What is the ICAO definition of “flight time”?

Select one:

The time from any person boarding the aircraft with the intention of flight until all persons have disembarked.
The time between engine start and engine shut down.
The time between taking-off and landing.
The time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power with the intention of taking off, until it finally comes to rest after landing.

63. Question

What is the first action after suspecting or detecting a carburettor fire?

Select one:

Continue to turn the engine over, and then proceed with the checklist.
Nothing, the engine is designed to cope with the event.
Evacuate the aircraft immediately.
Declare a "MAYDAY" with ATC, and then continue to turn the engine over.

64. Question

What is the emergency transponder code?

Select one:

7600.
7000.
7700.
7500.

65. Question

What is the definition of urgency?

Select one:

A condition where the pilot-in-command wants to get home quickly.
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle.
A condition concerning the safety of an aicraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate asistance.

66. Question

What is the definition of transition level?

Select one:

The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level.
The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as height.
The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude.
The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude.

67. Question

What is the definition of the pilot-in-command?

Select one:

The pilot designated by the operator or the owner as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight.
The pilot designated by the operator, or the owner as being the person who makes all the critical decisions in flight.
The pilot who sits in the left hand seat.
The pilot who has the most flying experience on board the aircraft.

68. Question

What is the definition of large aeroplane?

Select one:

Any aircraft with more than 1 engine.
A jet aeroplane with more than 9 seats.
An aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg.
Any aeroplane with more than 9 seats.

69. Question

What is the definition of Flight Time – aeroplanes?

Select one:

The total time from the moment an aeroplane first gets airborne until the moment it finally touches down.
The moment you "book out" with operations to moment you "book in".
The total time the engine is running.
The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

70. Question

What is the definition of distress?

Select one:

A condition of being stressed by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
Any time the pilot-in-command is apprehensive.
A condition concerning the safety of an aicraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

71. Question

What is the definition of Alerting Service?

Select one:

A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required.
A specialised search and rescue service.
Asecure communications service connecting all search and rescue organisations.
An auto triangulation service providing accurate fixes to pilots unsure of their position.

72. Question

What is the definition of a General Aviation Operation?

Select one:

An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport or an aerial work operation that uses single engine piston aircraft.
An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport or an aerial work operation.
An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport or an aerial work operation that uses light aircraft.
An aircraft operation that is general in nature.

73. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly concludes the following statement? The minimum radio and navigation equipment required for VFR flight in Class D airspace

Select one:

two-way VHF radio.
two-way VHF radio and ADF.
two-way VHF radio and VOR.
two-way VHF radio, although the requirement for this may be waived in respect of a given flight, with the permission of the relevant ATCUs.

74. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, correctly completes the following statement? Fixed signs on an aerodrome whose indication is mandatory for pilots have the following common characteristic:

Select one:

they have black inscriptions on a white background.
they have white inscriptions on a red background.
they have white inscriptions on a blue background.
they have black inscriptions on a yellow background.

75. Question

What is the definition of “Pilot-in Command”?

Select one:

The person flying the aircraft.
The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft.
The most experienced pilot in the aircraft.
The person authorising the flight.

76. Question

What is the definition of “Air Traffic”?

Select one:

All aircraft in flight or on the manoeuvring area or apron of an aerodrome.
All aircraft in flight or on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
All aircraft in flight within an FIR.
All aircraft on the manoeuvring area or apron of an aerodrome.

77. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, correctly completes the following statement? At an airfield where there are no defined runways or strips, a landing aircraft shall leave an aircraft which has just landed clear to its_and shall leave clear to its____an aircraft about to depart.

Select one:

left left
left right
right left
right right

78. Question

What is the definition of a “WET” runway?

Select one:

Significant patches of standing water are visible.
It is damp to touch.
The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible.
Extensive patches of standing water are visible.

79. Question

What is the correct phraseology for the issue of a take-off clearance?

Select one:

ATC: G-CD, cleared to go. Pilot: Cleared to go, G-CD.
ATC: G-CD, cleared to light the fires. Pilot: Cleared to light the fires, G-CD.
ATC: G-CD, cleared for take-off. Pilot: Cleared for take-off, G-CD.
ATC: G-CD, cleared for departure. Pilot: Cleared for departure, G-CD.

80. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, correctly completes the following statement? A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent below transition level with the altimeter subscale set to:

Select one:

aerodrome QFE.
regional QNH.
aerodrome QNH.
1013 Millibars.

81. Question

What is the colour of runway Stop Bars and Guard Lights respectively?

Select one:

Red and White.
Red and Yellow.
Yellow and Blue.
Blue and Green.

82. Question

What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

Select one:

That the flight will only take place in class G airspace.
That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR.
That the flight will not take place above FL180.
That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions.

83. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) below, correctly completes the following statement? A Flight Information Service and an Alerting Service are provided in airspace designated as:

Select one:

TMAs.
Flight Information Regions.
CTAs.
Advisory routes.

84. Question

What is the authoritative document on handling emergencies?

Select one:

AIP.
Approved Training Organisation's Training Manual.
Aircraft Flight/Pilot's Operating Handbook.
Approved Training Organisation's Safety Management Manual.

85. Question

What is definition of night?

Select one:

The hours between the evening civil twilight and the morning civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.
Anytime the pilot-in-command cannot see sunlight.
Anytime that Air Traffic Control put the runway lights on.
The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.

86. Question

What is an Operations Manual?

Select one:

A manual or a book containing procedures, instructions, and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by Operations personnel only.
A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.

87. Question

What is a Safety Management System?

Select one:

A systematic approach to managing the owners of flying schools, including the necessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies, and procedures.
A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies, and procedures.
A system devised by the Health and Safety Executive to monitor managers of flying schools and other aviation businesses.

88. Question

What is a Flight Manual?

Select one:

A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
A manual or book which describes how to operate the aircraft.
A manual, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
A manual which describes the national aviation authorities' Rules of the Air and associated ICAO differences.

89. Question

What is a Class D fire?

Select one:

Solids.
Flammable liquids.
Electrical.
Metals.

90. Question

What is a Class C fire?

Select one:

Flammable liquids.
Electrical.
Solids.
Metals.

91. Question

What is a Class A fire?

Select one:

Solids.
Flammable liquids.
Electrical.
Metals.

92. Question

What is definition of the Operator?

Select one:

The pilot-in-command.
The person or organisation that pays the bills.
The person charged by the CAA to operate the aircraft.
A person, organisation, or enterprise engaged in, or offering to engage in an aircraft operation.

93. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement? A private pilot may expect to receive a Radar Information Service from a LARS controller only;

Select one:

if accompanied by a pilot holding an Instrument Rating or IMC Rating.
if a Radar Advisory Service is not available.
if he is the holder of an Instrument Rating or IMC Rating.
while remaining within 40 nautical miles of the radar transmitter/receiver.

94. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) provides the correct conclusion to the following statement? The primary aims of Air Traffic Services are to:

Select one:

provide information and advice for the efficient and safe conduct of flights and to assist aircraft in need of search and rescue facilities.
all of the above at , and .
maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
prevent collisions, on the ground and in flight.

95. Question

What do the large white crosses on this diagram of a runway indicate? See the picture.

Select one:

This section is for use by light aircraft only.
The airfield is closed.
The section between the crosses is unfit for the movement of aircraft.
This area is for aircraft parking.

96. Question

What could you do to limit the amount of toxic gases entering your lungs, if you don’t have an Oxygen mask?

Select one:

Put a sock in your mouth.
Put your head out of the door.
Cover your nose and mouth with a damp cloth.
Cover your nose only with a damp cloth.

97. Question

What combination of letters shall not be used for Registration Marks, because they might be confused with an urgency signal?

Select one:

I I I
PAN
DDD
RCC

98. Question

What colour are threshold lights?

Select one:

Red and green
Green
Green threshold lights and Red end lights
Red

99. Question

Which of a), b), c) and d) provides the correct conclusion to the following statement? If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:

Select one:

continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the controller's next instruction.
continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply.
comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into Instrument Meteorological Conditions.
comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early.

100. Question

Which of a), b) c) and d) provides the most correct answer to the following question? What services are available, in normal circumstances, to VFR flights within the Open FIR (Class G Airspace)?

Select one:

A Flight Information Service and, if the pilot has filed a Flight Plan, or if an ATSU is otherwise aware of the flight, an Alerting Service.
A Precision Approach Procedure.
A Flight Information Service only.
Radar vectors to the ILS.

101. Question

Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a PPL (A)?

Select one:

Class B or C.
Class A or B.
Class 2 or 3.
Class 1 or 2.

102. Question

Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state’s sovereign airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?

Select one:

The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.
The state in which the aircraft is registered.
The state in whose sovereign airspace the aircraft is operating.

103. Question

Where would you find Noise Abatement Procedures for an unlicensed airfield?

Select one:

In a commercial flight guide such as "Pooley's Flight Guide".
Each airfield's Noise Abatement Procedures are published in an AIC.
In the applicable airfield entry in the AIP.
In the ANO.

104. Question

Where would you find Noise Abatement Procedures for a licensed airfield?

Select one:

You must ring the ATSU for a verbal briefing.
In the ANO.
In the applicable airfield entry in the AIP.
Each airfield's Noise Abatement Procedures are published in an AIC.

105. Question

What colour are taxiway side lights?

Select one:

Red
Blue
White
Green

106. Question

What colour are taxiway centerline lights?

Select one:

Blue
Green
Red
Yellow

107. Question

Where would a pilot find details of differences between ICAO standards, recommended practices and procedures, on the one hand, and LT regulations, on the other?

Select one:

General Aviation Safety Sense publications.
LT Aeronautical Information Circulars.
The LT AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication, often referred to as the 'Air Pilot').
LASORS.

108. Question

What colour are paved taxiway markings?

Select one:

Green
White
Red
Yellow

109. Question

Where will the emergency descent (if any) be described?

Select one:

In the checklist.
Light aircraft are not authorised to conduct an emergency descent.
In the AFM/POH.
A spiral dive is the safest manoeuvre to descent rapidly.

110. Question

What colour are Air Information Circulars relating to matters of special importance to air safety?

Select one:

Green
Yellow
Purple
Pink

111. Question

Where take-offs and landings are not confined to a runway. A pilot taking off shall position so as to leave clear …… any aircraft which is taking off:

Select one:

On the pilot's right.
On the pilot's left, if it is standard left hand circuit pattern.
On the pilot's left.
On the pilot's right, if it is right hand circuit pattern.

112. Question

Where must the Certificate of Registration for an aircraft be kept while the aircraft is flying?

Select one:

In the aircraft.
In the registered office of the owner.
By the authority of the State of registration.
On the ground at the point of departure.

113. Question

What are the two main toxic gases within smoke?

Select one:

Carbon Monoxide and Hydrogen Cyanide.
Carbon Monoxide and Bromo Chlorodi Fluoromethane.
Oxygen and Chloride.
Oxygen and Hydrogen.

114. Question

Where is the validity of C of A specified?

Select one:

In the Aircraft Flight Manual.
In the national AIP.
In the C of A itself.
In the Certificate of Registration (C of R).

115. Question

What are the minimum meteorological conditions defined for VFR flights below 900 m (3000 ft) MSL in an uncontrolled airspace when IAS is 140 kts or less?

Select one:

Flight visibility 5 km, ceiling 450 m (1500 ft).
Flight visibility 5 km, clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.
Flight visibility 3 km, clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.
Flight visibility 3 km, ceiling 450 m (1500 ft).

116. Question

When two airplanes are converging at approximately the same level, the airplane:

Select one:

That has the other on its right shall report to ATS.
That has the other on its left shall start to climb.
That has the other on its right shall give way.
That has the other on its left shall give way.

117. Question

What are the minimum meteorological conditions defined for VFR (except special VFR) flights in CTR?

Select one:

Ceiling 300 m (1000 ft), visibility 3 km.
Ceiling 300 m (1000 ft), visibility 5 km.
Ceiling 450 m (1500 ft), visibility 3 km.
Ceiling 450 m (1500 ft), visibility 5 km.

118. Question

When two airplanes are approaching head-on and there is danger of collision, each shall:

Select one:

Alter its heading to the left.
Make orbit to the left.
Make orbit to the right.
Alter its heading to the right.

119. Question

What colour are runway markings?

Select one:

Green
Red
White
Yellow

120. Question

What can not be included in a registration mark?

Select one:

LLL
FFF
RCC
TTT

121. Question

What are the four major phases/causes of aircraft fire?

1. Engine start.

2. Circuits.

3. Electrical.

4. Re-fuelling.

5. Post-crash.

6. Inflight.

7. Passengers smoking.

Select one:

2, 3, 5 and 7.
1, 3, 5 and 6.
All of them.
1, 2, 5 and 6.

122. Question

What are possible indications of a fire or condition that may lead to an engine fire?

1. Fuel check.

2. Pressure drop.

3. Rough running engine.

4. Flames.

5. ATC/Ground crew communication.

Select one:

1 and 5.
1, 2, 3 and 5.
1, 3 and 4.
All of them.

123. Question

When two aircraft are converging, the one which has the right of way, must:

Select one:

Maintain its speed and height.
Maintain its speed and heading.
Maintain its heading and heights.
Maintain its speed, heading and height.

124. Question

What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?

Select one:

Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control tower.
Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.
Continue to flu in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield.
Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.

125. Question

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?

Select one:

True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow.
alse. The one that has the other on its left has right of way.
False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything
True, provided they are in the same class.

126. Question

Water contamination on a runway described as “flooded” means that:

Select one:

Extensive standing water is visible.
The runway is soaked and cannot be used.
Significant patches of standing water are visible.
The runway is completely covered with standing water.

127. Question

When transiting a MATZ the vertical position of an aircraft is normally controlled by reference to:

Select one:

QFE at the military aerodrome.
Regional pressure setting.
QNH at the military aerodrome.
Standard pressure setting 1013 hPa.

128. Question

Wake turbulence:

Select one:

Is produced by an aircraft when it is on the ground.
Is a hazard to a light aircraft taxiing within 3 rotor dimensions of a hovering helicopter.
Is an aircraft only phenomenon.
Is produced by an aircraft's jet engine.

129. Question

Wake turbulence:

Select one:

Caused by wing tip vorticies which will drift upwards from the aircraft generating them.
Caused by wing tip vorticies which converge from the tip.
Is most hazardous in strong wind.
Is most hazardous in light or cross wind conditions.

130. Question

When should the command “BRACE BRACE” be given?

Select one:

25 seconds before impact.
15 seconds before impact.
5 seconds before impact.
15 minutes before impact.

131. Question

Visual signals on an airfield are displayed:

Select one:

in a signals square close to the ATC tower.
adjacent to the main runway.
by the runway threshold.
in the centre of the aerodrome.

132. Question

When operating at a controlled aerodrome, holding points:

Select one:

Are there to help you navigate around the airport.
May only be crossed with ATC clearance and consist of yellow solid and broken lines.
Are painted yellow and have blue stop bar lights.
May be crossed as long as a good look out is maintained.

133. Question

Wake turbulence:

Select one:

Only occurs when an aircraft is in the cruise phase of flight.
Is produced when an aircraft generates lift or when a helicopter hovers.
Is confined to helicopters.
Is produced by all lighter than air vessels.

134. Question

Visual meteorological conditions (VMC) minima are defined bu ICAO and expressed in terms of:

Select one:

Visibility and cloud ceiling.
Visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling.
Cloud ceiling and runway visual range.
Visibility.

135. Question

Unless the flight manual gives specific contrary instructions, generically speaking in the event of a fire in the engine bay during flight, the immediate actions to take would be to:

Select one:

Open the throttle and put the aircraft into a fast dive.
Close the throttle, switch off the ignition and open the cabin heat control.
Close the throttle, turn off the fuel and close the cabin heat and demister controls.
Use the hand held fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire.

136. Question

VFR flights shall not be operated above:

Select one:

FL45
FL200
FL50
FL19

137. Question

Unless otherwise prescribed by an appropriate authority, “Night” is between:

Select one:

The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
The end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.
The end of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight.
The beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

138. Question

Under EASA Part-FCL, a single pilot-engine class rating is valid for:

Select one:

1 year.
13 months.
2 years.
3 years.

139. Question

Under certain circumstances and subject to complying with specific requirements, a PPL holder may fly as pilot in command for the purpose of aerial work. Two examples are:

Select one:

Aerial photography and glider towing.
Glider towing and parashute dropping.
Pleasure flights and crop spraying.
Banner towing and glider towing.

140. Question

Two airplanes are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing. Which of them shall give way to other?

Select one:

The airplane which is at a lower level.
2, 3 answers are correct.
The airplane which is at a upper level, except it is on final.
The airplane which is at a upper level.

141. Question

Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, one of which is receiving a Radar Information Service (RIS), are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. There is, thus, a high risk of collision. The fact that one aircraft is receiving an RIS is immaterial to the situation. The Rules of the Air apply. Therefore, the aircraft which has the other on its left has right of way and should maintain:

Select one:

height and speed.
course and speed.
altitude and course.
altitude and speed.

142. Question

Transponder code used to indicate an emergency is:

Select one:

7600.
7000.
7500.
7700.

143. Question

TODA”take-off distance available” is:

Select one:

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

144. Question

To simulate Instrument Meteorological Conditions a pilot’s vision may be artificially restricted by goggles or screens. In this situation:

Select one:

quadrantal flight levels must be flown.
an observer must be carried who has access to the aircraft controls.
a safety pilot with access to the aircraft controls must be carried.
a safety pilot with access to the aircraft controls must be carried and, if this safety pilot does not have the field of view to carry out an adequate look out, an additional observer to supplement the safety pilot's look out.

145. Question

To overtake another aircraft in the air you must:

Select one:

Alter course to the left.
Alter course to the right.
Alter course to the left or right.
Fly over or under the other aircraft.

146. Question

To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:

Select one:

a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
two way radio communication is not required.
a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
a clearance is required.

147. Question

To operate an aircraft radio legally, a FRTOL must be held; which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

It must be renewed every 13 months.
A pilot in command not holding an FRTOL may operate the radio if there is another pilot on board who does.
A student pilot under the control of a qualified flying instructor may operate without one.
It must be renewed every 24 months.

148. Question

To maintain an orderly flow of air traffic, and to prevent collisions both in the air and on the ground, are major objectives of the Air Traffic Service. Which of the objectives below, describe additional Air Traffic Service aims?

(1) To help guarantee the security of all flights in respect of illegal interference.

(2) To provide a Radar Information Service to all VFR and IFR flights.

(3) To provide information and advice to promote the efficient and safe conduct of flights.

(4) To notify and assist the relevant organisations when aircraft are in need of search and rescue facilities.

Select one:

1) and (3).
(1) and (2).
(3) and (4).
(1), (2) and (3).

149. Question

To indicate that assistance is required, survivors would use which of the following signals from the Ground to Air Emergency Code?

Select one:

R
X
A
V

150. Question

To carry passengers the pilot-in-command must have made, as the sole manipulator of the controls, at least:

Select one:

Three take-offs and landings in the same type or class to be flown within the preceding 90 days.
One take-off and landing in the same type or class to be flown within the preceding 30 days.
One take-off and landing in the same type or class to be flown within the preceding 28 days.
Three take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days.

151. Question

To fly on an international flight, a pilot must hold a licence issued or rendered valid by:

Select one:

The state where the aircraft is based.
The state of registry of the aircraft.
ICAO.
Any contracting state.

152. Question

This symbol across a taxiway means:

Select one:

A holding point which must not be crossed in the direction of the runway without ATC permission.
There is one more holding point before the runway.
A holding point which must not be crossed in the direction of the taxiway without ATC permission.
The end of the useable taxiway and the symbol must not be crossed.

153. Question

This symbol painted across a taxiway denotes:

Select one:

A holding point which must not be crossed in the direction of the runway without ATC permission.
A holding point which must not be crossed in the direction of the taxiway without ATC permission.
The end of the useable taxiway and must not be crossed.
An instrument CAT I/II/III holding point where there is one more holding point before the runway.

154. Question

This red and yellow arrow bent at right angles round the corner of the signals square indicates that: See the picture.

Select one:

turn right at the end of the runway.
a right hand circuit is in operation.
follow the arrows to parking.
on landing vacate the runway to the right as soon as possible

155. Question

There is a rectangular chequered board coloured red and yellow on the side of the ATC tower. This means:

Select one:

pilots are to report here.
pilots are to report to this point.
a right hand circuit is in force.
aircraft may move on the manoeuvring area and apron only with the permission of ATC.

156. Question

The transponder code used to indicate radio failure is:

Select one:

7600
7000
7500
7700

157. Question

The transition layer is the airspace between:

Select one:

Mean sea level and the transition altitude.
The transition level and mean sea level.
The transition altitude and the transition level.
3000 ft and the transition level.

158. Question

When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?

Select one:

Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground.
Only where the operator has given permission.
Never.
Only when necessary for take off and landing.

159. Question

When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the

Select one:

letters used for ICAO identification documents
three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
four letter combinations beginning with Q

160. Question

When flying over large bodies of water it is recommended that life jackets:

Select one:

Should be worn un-inflated.
Are not necessary unless flying more than 300 nm from the coast.
Should be within easy reach.

161. Question

When flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules in uncontrolled airspace, responsibility for maintaining VMC and terrain clearance rests with:

Select one:

Any Air Traffic Control Unit with whom the pilot is in contact.
The Pilot-in-Command.
Any radar controller with whom the pilot is in contact.
Any Air Traffic Service Unit with whom the pilot is in contact.

162. Question

When flying beneath a Terminal Manoeuvring Area the subscale of the altimeter should be set to:

Select one:

the QNH of an airfield situated within the TMA.
the Standard Pressure Setting.
the Regional Pressure Setting.
the lower of the RPS and the QNH of an airfield situated within the TMA.

163. Question

When flying beneath a terminal control area, or terminal manoeuvring area, what altimeter sub-scalesetting should be used?

Select one:

The appropriate regional pressure setting.
The QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA.
The lowest between either the regional pressure setting or the QNH of an aerodrome beneath the TMA.
The QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA.

164. Question

When are navigation lights required to be shown?

Select one:

Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on.
When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority.
At night or when specified by the authority.

165. Question

When ditching the pilot should:

Select one:

Land as slowly as possible into a rising swell, with a strong headwind.
Land as slowly as possible, declear a "MAYDAY", and squawk 7700 as early as possible.
Glide at best range speed to allow the longest time airborne.
Glide at best range speed, squawk 7600, and turn away from any shipping.

166. Question

When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?

Select one:

At the commander's discretion.
Either IFR or VFR.
IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC.
In accordance with ATC instructions.

167. Question

When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:

Select one:

search and rescue co-ordination centres.
air traffic co-ordination centres.
air traffic control and flight information centres
control centres only.

168. Question

When aircraft is intercepted and is unable to follow instructions from interceptor, its answer must be as doubled phrase:

Select one:

CAN NOT COMPLY
CAN NOT

169. Question

When a threshold is displaced, what colour shall the lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold?

Select one:

white.
blue, this portion of the runway is considered as taxiway.
flashing red, intermittent with flashing white.
red.

170. Question

The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:

Select one:

through a central control unit.
automatically at the control zone boundary.
with the pilot's consent.
by agreement with the receiving unit.

171. Question

When a Single Engine Piston (Land) rating is revalidated it is valid for:

Select one:

12 months from the date of the revalidation.
24 months from the date of the revalidation.
24 months from the upcoming expiry date.
life.

172. Question

The strongest wake turbulence is generated by:

Select one:

A light aircraft at low speed.
A light aircraft at high speed.
A heavy aircraft at low speed.
A heavy aircraft at high speed.

173. Question

The State of licence issue of a JAA PPL may be changed to a new member State providing:

Select one:

the licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new member State lasting at least three months.
the licence holder has resided in the new member State for at least 31 days.
the new member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State.
the new member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.

174. Question

When a “Light” aircraft departs from an intermediate position on the same runway following a “Heavy” aeroplane’s departure, the recommended minimum spacing is:

Select one:

3 km.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
2 NM.

175. Question

The transition altitude is:

Select one:

A level below which QNH must be used and is published in the AIP.
3000 feet AMSL.
Altitude above which vertical position is controlled by reference to SPS.
Altitude at and below which vertical position is controlled by reference to QNH.

176. Question

If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and pronunciations and transmitting each phrase twice.

The standard phrase with the meaning Unable to comply for use by “INTERCEPTED” aircraft is:

Select one:

UNABLE TO COMPLY
CAN NOT
CAN NOT COMPLY
NOT POSSIBLE

177. Question

The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the

Select one:

prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design.
prevention of accidents or incidents and to establish liability.
prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.
prevention of accidents or incidents.

178. Question

What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?

Select one:

Altitude
Flight Level
Elevation
Height

179. Question

What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?

Select one:

Elevation.
Altitude
Flight Level.
Height.

180. Question

The skills test for a JAA PPL(A) must be taken within_________of completing flying instruction.

Select one:

4 months
3 months
one year
6 months

181. Question

What word is generally used to describe the vertical position of the highest level of a geographical feature, or man-made object, on the Earth’s surface, measured above mean sea level, and which is used, more particularly, when describing the vertical position of an airfield above mean sea level?

Select one:

Elevation.
Height.
Flight Level.
Altitude.

182. Question

What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?

Select one:

The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention.
The Convention on International Civil Aviation.
PICAO.
ICAO.

183. Question

The second freedom of the air is the:

Select one:

right to overfly without landing
right to cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic)"
ight to land for a technical stop
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on

184. Question

The safest extinguisher to use on a wheel (brake) fire is:

Select one:

Dry powder
Water
Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide

185. Question

The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be:

Select one:

those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.
those of the state of the visiting aircraft.
those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states.
those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.

186. Question

What unit of atmospheric pressure is used alongside the Millibar in European aviation, being the exact numerical equivalent of the Millibar?

Select one:

Inches of Mercury.
Pounds per square inch.
Newtons per square metre.
The Hectopascal.

187. Question

The procedure for the pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be followed in case of intercepting a distress transmission is:

Select one:

– record the position of the transmission, – proceed according to the flight plan, – complete the SAR report form at the next airport, indicating where you can be reached in order to supply further information.
– hold at the position where the distress signal and/or message is received, – co-ordinate the SAR operation by using the appropriate VHF and/or HF frequencies until released by a SAR unit.
– record the position of the craft in distress, – take the bearing of the transmission, – inform the appropriate RCC or ATS using the appropriate VHF and/or HF frequencies, – proceed on the most expeditious way towards the position given in the transmission
– record the position of the craft in distress if given, – if possible take a bearing of the transmission, – inform the appropriate RCC or ASS and, – while awaiting instructions, proceed at your discretion towards the position given in the transmission

188. Question

What type of distress call should be made in the event of a fire?

Select one:

"We are declaring an emergency".
"MAYDAY".
"PAN" call.
"HELP" call.

189. Question

The privileges of the IMC rating:

Select one:

entitle the holder to fly in controlled airspace worldwide.
may be exercised in the sovereign airspace of any JAA member state without prior agreement.
may be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating. The exercise of the privileges in the airspace of another JAA member state is subject to the prior agreement of that state.
may only be exercised in the sovereign airspace of the State issuing the rating.

190. Question

What symbol may be placed in the signal square to indicate that the aerodrome is used by gliders and that gliding flights are taking place?

Select one:

A white double cross.
A white "T".
A red square with a yellow diagonal.
A yellow cross.

191. Question

What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

Select one:

7600
7000
7777
7700

192. Question

The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

Select one:

estimated ground speed (G/S).
indicated air speed (IAS).
true air speed (TAS).
true air speed at 65% power.

193. Question

The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:

Select one:

hold any valid and current pilot's licence.
hold a licence issued by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered.
hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state.
hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA.

194. Question

What service is provided in the Lithuania by a Flight Information Service?

Select one:

Information and warnings about meteorological conditions, information about distance to run to destination airfields, conditions of aerodrome facilities, and other safety information.
Information and warnings about meteorological conditions, radar vectors for destination airfields, and safety information.
Information and warnings about meteorological conditions, changes of serviceability in navigational and approach aids, a VHF direction finding service, and other safety information
Information and warnings about meteorological conditions, changes of serviceability in navigational and approach aids, conditions of aerodrome facilities, and other safety information.

195. Question

The owner or operator of a light aircraft who holds a pilot’s licence but is not a licensed engineer may carry out minor rectification on his aircraft in which of the following situations:

Select one:

never
only if the pilot holds a professional licence.
in certain well defined cases in accordance with the appropriate paragraphs of the Air Navigation (General) Regulations.
in an emergency when a licensed engineer is not available.

196. Question

What service is provided by an Aerodrome Flight Information Service?

Select one:

Information on known circuit traffic and runway-in-use, only.
A reduced approach control service for minor airfields.
Information — but not instructions or advice — for the safe and efficient conduct of flights within an Aerodrome Traffic Zone, conveyed to pilots in plain language.
Information about the weather, QNH and the condition of aircraft manoeuvring surfaces.

197. Question

What major advance in Air Transport during WWII led to the calling of the Chicago Convention in 1944?

Select one:

Bigger and faster aeroplanes.
The ability of transport aircraft to fly worldwide over the territory of many different states.
More use of air power because of the massive loss of shipping during the war.
The establishment of an integrated Air Traffic Control system in Europe.

198. Question

What is the width of the state border area of the Lithuanian airspace?

Select one:

15 km
4 NM
10 NM
15 NM

199. Question

What is the State of Registry?

Select one:

The country where the insurance company is registered.
The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.
The State whose monarchy owns the aircraft.
The state where the aircraft is based.

200. Question

The position of runway holding points ensures:

Select one:

That a safe gap exists to protect the radio signals for the applicable instrument approach only.
That a safe gap exists between the aircraft holding and any aircraft that may pass in front of, or behind it.
Nothing is assured-it is the pilot-in-command's responsibility.
That a safe gap exists between the aircraft holding and any aircraft that may pass in front of it.

201. Question

The navigation lights of a flying machine or airship should cover the following arcs, green and red wingtip-lights__degrees each side from dead ahead and the white tail-light _degrees either side of dead astern.

Select one:

90 90
100 90
220 140
110 70

202. Question

What is the purpose of a CO detector?

Select one:

To detect Hydrogen Cyanide in the cabin.
To detect Oxygen in the cabin.
To detect Carbon Dioxide in the cabin.
To detect Carbon Monoxide in the cabin.

203. Question

The most likely initial consequence of encountering a microburst would be:

Select one:

A decrease in air speed.
An increase in air speed.
An increased rate of descent.
Calm air.

204. Question

The minimum medical required to allow a student pilot training for the issue of EASA Part-FCL PPL(A) to fly solo is a:

Select one or more:

Class 3 medical certificate.
Class 1 medical certificate.
Declaration from their GP.
Class 2 medical certificate.

205. Question

What is the order for entering CTR?

Select one:

By joining a base leg.
Via a specified entry and exit points.
By joining abeam.
Directly to VOR.

206. Question

The minimum flight time required for the issue of a EASA Part-FCL PPL(A) is:

Select one:

25 hours.
30 hours.
45 hours.
35 hours.

207. Question

What is the most common extinguishing agent used in light aircraft?

Select one:

Dry Chemical
Halon.
CO2.
Water.

208. Question

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft from the same point on the runway?

Select one:

2 nautical miles
5 nautical miles
2 minutes
5 minutes

209. Question

The minimum age at which a student pilot can make a solo flight is:

Select one:

18 years.
17 years.
16 years.
15 years.

210. Question

The lowest height to fly under IFR is:

Select one:

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of track.
1000 ft above the highest fixed obstacle within 600 m.
1500 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of track.
1000 ft AGL.

211. Question

What is the minimum height (AGL) for VFR flights in the Lithuania airspace (except flights above populated area)?

Select one:

300 m
150 m (500 ft)
300 ft
500 m

212. Question

What is the min. height of flight above the populated area in the Lithuanian airspace?

Select one:

Not less than 300 m (1000 feet) AGL. (3)
Not less than 150 m AGL. (1)
Height which provides emergency landing outside the populated area. (2)
2 and 3 answers are correct.

213. Question

The loading limitations shall include:

Select one:

all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
all limiting mass and centres of gravity

214. Question

What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

Select one:

Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.
Clear to land.
Land immediately.
You have priority to land.

215. Question

What is the meaning of a steady red light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?

Select one:

Move clear of the landing area.
Give priority to the aircraft ahead of you.
Return to the apron.
Stop.

216. Question

The letter “L” is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:

Select one:

20 000 kg.
5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
14 000 kg.
7 000 kg.

217. Question

What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?

Select one:

Clear to take off.
Return to the apron.
Move clear of the landing area.
Clear to move or taxy on the landing area.

218. Question

The language(s) used for radio communication in the Lithuanian airspace are:

Select one:

Lithuanian and other an official ICAO languages.
Lithuanian only.
Lithuanian, English and Russian.
Lithuanian or English.

219. Question

What is the meaning of a flashing white light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

Select one:

You have priority to land.
Land immediately.
Clear to land.
Land here on receipt of a steady green.

220. Question

The JAA document dealing with matters relating to the training for and issue of pilot’s licences for flying aeroplanes is:

Select one:

JAR FCL-1
JAR FCL-2
JAR OPS-3
JAR FCL-3

221. Question

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was formed as a result of:

Select one:

The Maastricht Treaty.
The Chicago Convention.
The Geneva Convention.
The Treaty of Rome.

222. Question

What is the meaning of a flashing red light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

Select one:

Do not land at this airfield. The airfield is unavailable for landing.
Do not land. Continue orbiting and await a green light signal.
Return to this airfield.
An aircraft below you has priority to land.

223. Question

The identification beacon at a civilian airfield will show:

Select one:

an alternating white and green light.
a flashing white light.
a green light flashing a two letter Morse group.
a red flashing a two letter Morse group.

224. Question

The ICAO rules require that certain documents should be carried on international flights. Among these documents should be:

Select one:

passports of crew and passengers, C of A certificate and Certificate of Registration.
C of A crew licences and log books, and airframe technical log book.
third party liability insurance certificate, the C of A certificate and the Certificate of Registration.
crew licences and birth certificates, load sheet, airframe technical log book.

225. Question

What is the meaning of a flashing red light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?

Select one:

Move clear of the landing area.
Return to the apron.
Refuelling now available.
Hold your position.

226. Question

The ICAO nautical mile is equivalent to:

Select one:

7080 feet
6080 feet
1852 metres
1825 metres

227. Question

The ICAO definition of radar vectoring is:

Select one:

the provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on the use of radar.
the directional control of aircraft for collision avoidance.
the directional control of aircraft for the avoidance of collisions and adverse weather conditions.
the use of radar in an emergency situation.

228. Question

The holder of a PPL(A) is granted the privilege to act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of any aeroplane:

Select one:

engaged on non-revenue flights for which the pilot is appropriately certified.
for pleasure only.
for hire and reward or pleasure
engaged on revenue earning flights for which the pilot is appropriately certified.

229. Question

The holder of a pilot’s licence who does not hold a Flight Radio Telephony Operator’s licence may operate the aircraft’s radio:

Select one:

when operating as a student pilot for the purpose of obtaining an additional rating under the control of a qualified flying instructor.
if another pilot who does hold a FRTOL is on board.
outside controlled airspace as long as no flight plan has been filed.
never

230. Question

The holder of a pilot’s licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which involves the incapacity to undertake licence related functions for a certain number of days. The number of days is:

Select one:

30
90
21
60

231. Question

The holder of a JAA PPL (who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of 3 take offs and 3 landings within the preceding:

Select one:

60 days
90 days
31 days
29

232. Question

The ground – air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “AFIRMATIVE” is:

Select one:

N
V
Y
X

233. Question

The Freedoms of the Air permit transit of the airspace of contracting States by:

Select one:

non-commercial, scheduled flights only.
both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial flights.
scheduled commercial flights only.
non-commercial, non-scheduled flights only.

234. Question

The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance:

Select one:

Switching on and off three times the navigation lights.
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS.

235. Question

The following is a definition of what? “The length of the take-off run available plus the length of any available stopway”.

Select one:

Part of the runway declared as suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.
Runway length.
Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA).
Take-off Distance Available (TODA).

236. Question

The following is a definition of what? “The length of the take-off run available plus the length of any available stopway”.

Select one:

Take-off distance available (TODA).
Take-off run available (TORA).
Accelerate stop distance available (ASDA).
Emergency distance available (EDA).

237. Question

The flight time required for the grant of a licence or rating:

Select one:

May be flown in a different category of aircraft for which the licence or rating is sought.
Must be flown in an aircraft of the same category for which the licence or rating is sought.
May be flown in any aircraft with a valid C of A.
May be flown in any aircarft deemed airworthy e.g. "Permit to Fly" aircraft.

238. Question

he first freedom of the air is:

Select one:

The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
The right to overfly without landing.
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
The right to land for a technical stop.

239. Question

The designation of the standard time datum in the LT AIP is:

Select one:

LMT
ZULU
BST
UTC

240. Question

The departure and arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log book is taken as follows:

Select one:

the time the aircraft enters the active runway for the first take off and the time it vacates the runway after the last landing.
the time of engine start and the time of engine shut-down.
the time the aircraft begins to move under its own power for the purpose for take-off and the time it comes to rest following the last landing.
the time of the first take off and the time of the last landing of the sortie.

241. Question

The definition of ‘Distress’ is:

Select one:

the aircraft has an immediate message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board or within sight.
the aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board or within sight.
a crew member is distressed and requires medical assistance.
the aircraft is in immediate and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

242. Question

The definition of “alternate aerodrome” is:

Select one:

An aerodrome, specified in a flight plan, to be used in case of emergency.
An aerodrome to which the flight will proceed if the first diversion airfield is unavailable.
A temporary base, if the normal base aerodrome is unusable.
An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it is either impossible or inadvisable to land at the intended destination aerodrome.

243. Question

The definition flying machine may refer to:

Select one:

gliders and power-driven aeroplanes or dirigibles.
fixed wing aircraft only.
any heavier-than-air, power-driven aircraft.
any aircraft of any category or classification.

244. Question

The definition “Air Traffic Services unit” includes the following

Select one:

Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

245. Question

The correct transponder code for radio failure is:

Select one:

7600
7000
7500
7700

246. Question

The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be:

Select one:

yellow
flashing white
green
white

247. Question

The colour coding of AlCs by subject matter is: Safety Operational Administrative

Select one:

Pink Yellow White
Pink White Yellow
White Yellow Green
Green Orange Red

248. Question

The area of an airport used specifically for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers and cargo, aircraft fuelling, line maintenance and short term parking… is the definition of;

Select one:

the apron
the manoeuvring area
the maintenance area
the marshalling area

249. Question

The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:

Select one:

if the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% from that given in the flight plan.
about any track deviation.
about any deviation in TAS.
if the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than ten minutes from that notified to ATS.

250. Question

The Air Navigation Order states that a person shall not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to endanger an aircraft or any person therein. To whom does this apply?

Select one:

Only to airline crew.
Only to the pilot in command.
Only to cabin staff.
To every person.

251. Question

The ‘Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

Select one:

advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
binding for all air line companies with international traffic
binding for all member states

252. Question

Supply the missing word. For the purposes of the Chicago Convention of 1944, the airspace above the territory of a State shall be deemed to be under that State’s________.

Select one:

Jurisdiction.
Sovereignty.
Regulation.
Control.

253. Question

Taxiway edge lights shall be:

Select one:

Fixed showing green.
Fixed showing yellow.
Flashing showing blue.
Fixed showing blue.

254. Question

Skill test for a private pilot licence (PPL) is valid for:

Select one:

30 days
90 days
12 month
6 month

255. Question

Should you cross Stop Bars at a runway holding point?

Select one:

Only if you see them.
Yes, they might be faulty.
Yes, these are only for large aeroplanes.
No, wait until they have been extinguished by ATC.

256. Question

Should fire drills be memorised?

Select one:

No.
It depends on what your instructor has taught you.
Yes.
Yes – the "Memory items" are stipulated in the aircraft checklist.

257. Question

Should a clearance limit be written down?

Select one:

Depends on the pilot's mental capacity.
Yes.
No.
Only if the pilot is not familliar with the airport.

Air Law

Quiz Summary

Information

Results

Results

Categories

1. Question

Who has the right to revalidate a pilot licence?

2. Question

Whilst maintaining a steady course, level and speed you see another aircraft in your 2 o’clock about 4 nautical miles away and at the same level as yourself. The danger of collision exists if the other aircraft:

3. Question

Whilst flying at night you see the green navigation light of another flying machine at a similar level on a steady relative bearing of 310:

4. Question

While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see at a constant relative bearing of 010 degrees, and at the same altitude, a steady white light with a green light to its left and a red light to its right. The lights appear to be getting closer. You deduce that you see;

5. Question

Which transponder code should a pilot select if he is experiencing an emergency which threatens the safety of his aircraft and/or its occupants?

6. Question

Which statement is correct ?

During a Visual Approach” in Controlled Airspace (Class C):”

7. Question

Which year Lithuania became ICAO member?

8. Question

Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft?

9. Question

Which SSR code should be selected to indicate radio failure:

10. Question

Which scenario from the answers below, is likely to create the largest amount of wake turbulence:

11. Question

Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?

12. Question

Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?

13. Question

Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

14. Question

Which one of the following statements is true? Prior to taxiing for take off aircraft will be passed the following information:

15. Question

Which one of the following statements is false? An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying and until everyone has left it;

16. Question

Which one of the following statements is false? A full flight plan, or an abbreviated flight plan passed over the radio, is required when:

17. Question

Which of the symptoms below may indicate Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

18. Question

Which of the listed below flight levels (FL) is used for visual flights?

19. Question

Which of the following would be classed as an aircraft accident?

20. Question

Which of the following would be classed as an aircraft accident?

21. Question

Which of the following statements is correct?

22. Question

Which of the following statements is correct regarding operations on a contaminated runway?

23. Question

Which of the following statements applies to the carriage of passengers by the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL(A) licence?

24. Question

Which of the following registration marks must NOT be used because it is easy to confuse with radiotelephony code?

25. Question

Which of the following rectifications may a licensed pilot not carry out on his aircraft which has a private category C of A?

26. Question

Which of the following rectifications may a licensed pilot not carry out on his aircraft which has a private category C of A?

27. Question

Which of the following normally defines ‘runway in use’ on an uncontrolled airfield?

28. Question

Which of the following meteorological phenomena may lead to windshear?

29. Question

Which of the following is true in relation to the wake turbulence generated by helicopter?

30. Question

Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

31. Question

Which of the following is not an SAR ground to air signal?

32. Question

Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

33. Question

Which of the following is method to re-validate a single engine piston class rating?

34. Question

Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft require a noise certificate and which are exempt?

35. Question

Which of the following groups correctly identifies items not normally subject to customs and excise duty when the aircraft of one ICAO contracting state lands in another contracting state?

36. Question

Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?